Well, in Austin we lost power in the middle of the night with temps in the single digits, so my freeze protection (running the pumps 24/7) failed. Cracked a ball valve, an actuated valve, a check valve, and some other PVC & fittings (all 2" plumbing).
I'm trying to rebuild everything exactly as it was because a) everything worked, and b) the workmanship looked professional. The implication of the latter statement is that, I feel the plumbing was done in the fashion below on purpose, with a reason. (see picture)
But I don't understand the bypass around the gas heater. The water is unimpeded from the filter to the heater; nothing will stop it, no valve of any kind. But they plumbed in a bypass line that can be closed with a ball valve (the circle on the diagram).
Why would you plumb a closable bypass around the heater, but not close off the flow to the heater itself? Maybe to temper the water coming out of the heater, or to balance the pressures on the inbound and outbound side of the heater?
I checked the documentation on my heater and found nothing to explain a possible reason. Anyone have intelligent thoughts on this?
I'm trying to rebuild everything exactly as it was because a) everything worked, and b) the workmanship looked professional. The implication of the latter statement is that, I feel the plumbing was done in the fashion below on purpose, with a reason. (see picture)

But I don't understand the bypass around the gas heater. The water is unimpeded from the filter to the heater; nothing will stop it, no valve of any kind. But they plumbed in a bypass line that can be closed with a ball valve (the circle on the diagram).
Why would you plumb a closable bypass around the heater, but not close off the flow to the heater itself? Maybe to temper the water coming out of the heater, or to balance the pressures on the inbound and outbound side of the heater?
I checked the documentation on my heater and found nothing to explain a possible reason. Anyone have intelligent thoughts on this?